AIBE Section-Wise Practice Questions: Topic-Based Preparation Strategy for Every Subject

To successfully pass the All India Bar Examination (AIBE), it is not enough to read legal texts, but to pay attention to section-wise practice questions mapped and compiled according to each of the subjects. The exam includes a wide range of law topics including Constitutional Law, CrPC, CPC, Evidence Act and Professional Ethics and the questions are usually multiple choice by nature.

By approaching topic-based practice questions for every subject, you get to know the type of question, common topics- and high scoring areas. These exercises also assist in sharpening your speed and accuracy- which is very crucial in a 100 question format in 3 hours and 30 minutes without negative marking.

Moreover, the evaluation of your performance per topic will help you identify the areas to work on and this means you will be able to revise more efficiently- and you will not have to study during the last minute and feel stressed. This strategy guide includes the way to organize your AIBE previous year questions for practice, make the most of the most helpful resources- and develop confidence in all the areas of the syllabus.

AIBE Section-Wise Practice Questions Bank

Practising section-wise questions into sections is one of the best methods of preparation for the All India Bar Examination (AIBE). In the AIBE syllabus, every subject assesses your conceptual knowledge as well as how you apply the laws in practical scenarios. Trying topic-based questions in subjects such as the Constitutional Law, IPC, CPC- and the Evidence Act will help you recognize the weak points, improve your ability to remember the main provisions- and become more accurate in the exam.

The questions that have been curated below are based on the most commonly asked questions and topics as well as the trends of the previous year that should enable you to be confident and achieve good performance in the AIBE 2025 exam.

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Constitutional Law - Practice Questions with Answers

1. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution of India?
   A) Right to Equality B) Right to Freedom of Religion C) Right to Work D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
   Answer: C) Right to Work
    
2. Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides right to:
   A) Work B) Privacy C) Equality D) Education
   Answer: D) Education
    
3. The statement “federal in form and unitary in spirit” describes the Constitution of India. Which scholar is attributed this phrase?
   A) Sir Jennings B) Dr B.R. Ambedkar C) Prof. K.C. Wheare D) Dr Rajendra Prasad
   Answer: C) Prof. K.C. Wheare
    
4. Under Article 12, the term “State” includes which of the following?
   A) Railway Board B) Judiciary C) Municipal Corporation D) All of the above
   Answer: D) All of the above
    
5. Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable as Fundamental Rights. True or False?
   Answer: False
    
6. The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha vests in:
   A) President B) Prime Minister C) Speaker D) Council of Ministers
   Answer: A) President
    
7. Which amendment inserted the Right to Education into the Constitution?
   A) 42nd B) 44th C) 86th D) 91st
   Answer: C) 86th

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Evidence Act - Practice Questions with Answers

1. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that no one shall be permitted to give evidence derived from unpublished official records?
   A) Section 121 B) Section 123 C) Section 126 D) Section 124
   Answer: B) Section 123
    
2. A dying declaration under Section 32(1) is admissible in:
   A) Civil proceedings only B) Criminal proceedings only C) Both civil and criminal D) None
   Answer: C) Both civil and criminal
    
3. Which section deals with professional communications and obligations of confidentiality?
   A) Section 124 B) Section 126 C) Section 112 D) Section 110
   Answer: B) Section 126
    
4. Under the Evidence Act, an accomplice is ___ a competent witness against an accused person.
   A) Shall be B) Shall not be C) May be D) May not be
   Answer: C) May be
    
5. Which section provides that a court may ask any question it pleases to discover or obtain proof of relevant facts?
   A) Section 139 B) Section 165 C) Section 110 D) Section 133
   Answer: B) Section 165
    
6. The maxim Salus Populi Suprema Lex has been incorporated under which section of the Evidence Act?
   A) Section 121 B) Section 123 C) Section 126 D) Section 127
   Answer: D) Section 127
    
7. Which section deals with the burden of proof under the Evidence Act?
   A) Section 110 B) Section 101 C) Section 133 D) Section 123
   Answer: B) Section 101

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Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) - Practice Questions with Answers

1. Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with:
   A) Notice before suing the Government B) Limitation for suits C) Inherent powers of court D) All of the above
   Answer: A) Notice before suing the Government
    
2. Under which section does CPC give inherent power to the court to prevent abuse of process?
   A) Section 94(2) B) Section 151 C) Section 80 D) Section 92
   Answer: B) Section 151
    
3. The decree passed by a court must be executed within how many years unless statute provides otherwise?
   A) One year B) Two years C) Three years D) Twelve years
   Answer: D) Twelve years (As per Article 136 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which applies to execution of decrees under CPC)
    
4. In CPC, res judicata is covered under which section?
   A) Section 10 B) Section 11 C) Section 12 D) Section 13
   Answer: B) Section 11
    
5. A plaintiff must give notice 30 days under Section 80 before suing the Government - True or False?
   Answer: True
    
6. Joinder of parties is covered under which section of CPC?
   A) Section 2(1)(c) B) Section 9 C) Section 91 D) Section 10
   Answer: C) Section 91
    
7. Amendment of decree or order is possible under which section of CPC?
   A) Section 94(3) B) Section 115 C) Section 103 D) Section 152
   Answer: D) Section 152

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Indian Penal Code (IPC) - Practice Questions with Answers

1. Which section of IPC defines “culpable homicide”?
   A) Section 299 B) Section 300 C) Section 304 D) Section 302
   Answer: A) Section 299
    
2. Which of the following is an exception to the rule of transferred malice?
   A) Intention must be same as original target B) Harm must be of same kind C) Both A and B D) Transferred malice is not recognised in IPC
   Answer: C) Both A and B
    
3. Under which section is causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons covered?
   A) Section 320 B) Section 325 C) Section 326 D) Section 307
   Answer: C) Section 326
    
4. Which section deals with attempt to murder?
   A) Section 299 B) Section 302 C) Section 307 D) Section 304
   Answer: C) Section 307
    
5. Which offence is specifically dealt with under Section 375 IPC?
   A) Kidnapping B) Rape C) Theft D) Criminal intimidation
   Answer: B) Rape
    
6. What does Section 79 IPC provide?
   A) Right of private defence B) Act done by person bound by law C) Punishment for criminal conspiracy D) Abetment of offense
   Answer: B) Act done by person bound by law
    
7. Which section makes destruction of evidence an offence?
   A) Section 201 B) Section 199 C) Section 200 D) Section 202
   Answer: A) Section 201

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Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) - Practice Questions with Answers

1. Under which section of CrPC is a criminal complaint to a Magistrate provided?
   A) Section 190 B) Section 200 C) Section 197 D) Section 199
   Answer: B) Section 200
    
2. Which section authorises arrest without warrant for cognizable offence?
   A) Section 41 B) Section 46 C) Section 41A D) Section 55
   Answer: A) Section 41
    
3. Which section deals with examination of witness by the court?
   A) Section 136 B) Section 137 C) Section 165 D) Section 311
   Answer: C) Section 165
    
4. Which section allows filing of charge-sheet after investigation?
   A) Section 173 B) Section 154 C) Section 156 D) Section 166
   Answer: A) Section 173
    
5. Under which section is bail for non-bailable offences ordinarily considered?
   A) Section 437 B) Section 436 C) Section 438 D) Section 439
   Answer: A) Section 437
    
6. Which section provides for the power of revision by the High Court?
   A) Section 401 B) Section 397 C) Section 399 D) Section 400
   Answer: B) Section 397
    
7. Order for transfer of criminal cases between courts is covered under which section?
   A) Section 407 B) Section 406 C) Section 406A D) Section 407A
   Answer: A) Section 407

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Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) - Practice Questions with Answers

1. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the setting aside of arbitral award?
   A) Section 30 B) Section 31 C) Section 34 D) Section 35
   Answer: C) Section 34
    
2. The term “arbitration agreement” is defined in which section?
   A) Section 2(1)(a) B) Section 7 C) Section 8 D) Section 2(1)(b)
   Answer: A) Section 2(1)(a)
    
3. Which remedy is available to enforce an arbitral award like a court decree?
   A) Section 36 enforcement B) Section 25 enforcement C) Section 43 enforcement D) No such remedy exists
   Answer: A) Section 36 enforcement
    
4. Conciliation is primarily governed by which provision of the Act?
   A) Part I B) Part II C) Part III D) Part V
   Answer: C) Part III (Conciliation provisions)
    
5. Which ground is commonly invoked to set aside an award under Section 34?
   A) Corruption or fraud in the procurement of award B) Award payable in another currency C) Time taken by arbitrator D) None of the above
   Answer: A) Corruption or fraud in the procurement of award
    
6. A party to arbitration must first seek stay of court proceedings and refer to arbitration under which section?
   A) Section 7 B) Section 8 C) Section 10 D) Section 12
   Answer: B) Section 8
    
7. Which clause commonly makes an arbitration agreement invalid for want of an arbitrator?
   A) Absence of an arbitration clause in the contract B) Invalid signature of the contract C) Arbitration agreement lacking objective D) Non-existence of an agreement to arbitrate
   Answer: D) Non-existence of an agreement to arbitrate

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Topic-Based Preparation Strategy for Every Subject

A structured preparation plan for each AIBE subject ensures balanced coverage and efficient revision. The exam will assess candidates on 19 core areas of law so it is worth knowing what areas are given more weightage so that you can focus your study time wisely. Start with high-mark areas including Constitutional Law, Code of Civil Procedure, Criminal Procedure Code and the Indian Penal Code since they are the ones that make up a significant percentage of the paper.

Such topics as Evidence Act, Family Law- and Professional Ethics also need to be conceptually clarified and have knowledge of the main sections. Since the topics to be studied are lighter like Company Law, Environmental Law- and Cyber Law, brief summaries and past year questions are enough. Use Bare Acts for quick referencing, make short notes of definitions and landmark cases- and practise multiple-choice questions daily.

Such a system will assist you to develop accuracy, memorise the important provisions in a shorter time and optimize your total AIBE score.

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Conclusion

To prepare for the AIBE,you need to have a smart and consistent approach as opposed to last-minute preparation. The exam has 19 basic law subjects- so you should focus on learning the main concepts of law, memorizing the most important parts- and rehearsing questions of the past years. Reading Bare Acts on a daily basis assists in building your legal background and enhances accuracy in interpretation.

Doing mock tests frequently develops exam temperament and also identifies areas of weakness. Incorporate more time on high-weightage subjects such as Constitutional Law, IPC- and CPC with the strategy of revision of smaller subjects. Creating short notes for final-day revision and keeping track of case laws also boosts retention.

The most important thing is consistency and a relaxed attitude to it. Through good time management and conceptualization, you can be certain that you will be able to pass through the AIBE and get your certificate of practice awarded by the Bar Council of India.